Bastion of Truth Reformed Churches in the Philippines

If all men have free will is the sinner as free as the saint?

If all sinners possess will and power to come to Christ, why did Christ say, “No man can come unto Me except the Father which hath sent Me draw him?” (John 6:44)

Has any man the power to refuse to come to Christ when the Father draws him?

Have those people free will that shall do wickedly and none of them shall understand? (Daniel 12:10)

Have those people free will of whom Peter says, they “were made to be taken and destroyed, and should utterly perish”? (2 Peter 2:12)

Have those people free will “who were before of old ordained to this condemnation”? (Jude 4)

Have those people free will of whom Jesus says, “the dead shall hear, and they that hear shall live”? (John 5:25)

Have those people free will of whom God says “I will be to them a God and they shall be to Me a people; and they shall not teach every man his neighbour and every man his brother, saying know the Lord”? (Hebrews 8:10-11)

Could not a man with free will believe, notwithstanding Jesus said, “I work a work in your days, a work which ye shall in no wise believe, though a man declare it unto you”? (Acts 13:41)

Does not the doctrine of free will make man the cause of his own salvation?

Can man have free will and God be sovereign?

Is any one free that is a servant?

Are not all men the servants of sin until they are made free by the Son? (John 8:34-36)

Is the sinner free to will, free to choose, free to love, free to become a Christian, or, free to let it all alone?

If we are saved by our free will, is it not a fact that the only difference between the saved and the lost is that the saved made a better use of their will?

If God only wills to save those that are willing to be saved, is not God’s will dependent upon man’s will?

Does God work all things after the counsel of His own will, or does He work some things after the will of the sinner? (Ephesians 1:11)

Is the unchangeable God, changed by the will of the sinner? (Malachi 3:6)

Does salvation or damnation depend upon the use that a man makes of his will?

Does a sinner have the will to do God’s will prior to being born again? If so, is his will changed in the spiritual birth?

Does God begin the work of grace in the sinner independently, or is the sinner’s will first consulted?

Does Christ have to get the consent of the sinner before He can save him?

Does the sinner have to accept Christ in order to be saved, and reject Him to be lost? If so, is not Christ limited in the work of salvation to what the sinner sees fit to do?

Is belief a condition of salvation, or is it an evidence of salvation?

Do we have to believe in order to be saved or is the believer already in possession of eternal life?

Does Christ save sinners or do sinners save themselves? Is salvation a partnership work?

If sinners are saved other than by grace alone, please cite the chapter and verse which says so?

If God purposed to save all men and God changes not, will not all be saved? If not, why not?

If God works all things after the counsel of His own will, was it His will to save those that will not be saved? (Ephesians 1:11)

If Christ came to save sinners and did not do it, is not Christ a failure? (1 Timothy 1:15)

If Christ is a failure, upon what does the Christian’s hope depend?

If grace is favour bestowed upon an unworthy object, does not grace stop where worthiness begins?

When a sinner is quickened by the spirit, is he not in possession of eternal life?

Is there any intermediate space between life and death?

Do we have to act in order to live, or does life always precede action?

Did Christ come to seek and to save sinners, or to save those that seek Him? (Luke 19:10)

If sinners have to seek God in order to be saved, and none seek Him, will any be saved? (Romans 3:11)

Does not the saving of sinners come before the calling, and does not God do both? Are we either saved or called according to our works? (2 Timothy 1:9)

If God saves sinners according to His own purpose (2 Timothy 1:9), is not the plan of salvation as old as God’s purpose?

If Christ came to save sinners (1 Timothy 1:15), and finished the work (John 19:30), what is left for sinners to do in the work of salvation?

Were the different gifts given for the salvation of sinners, or for the edifying of the body of Christ? (Ephesians 4:11-12)

Could there be an effect without a cause?

Is the first cause of salvation the work of God, or the work of the sinner? (Philippians 1:6)

Do good works produce the Spirit, or does the Spirit produce good works?

If Christ only made salvation possible and the sinner makes it sure by his acts, which deserves the more praise?